The question of homosexuality and the Bible (long rant, be warned!)

I went looking for a reference on the body being a temple for the Spirit (1 Corinthians 6, by the way), and found this passage. This is in the "New International Version (NIV)." Here's the relevant part of the passage (1 Corinthians 6:9):

Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders...

Okay, that's fine. Now I understand why the Christian right-wing is so against anything homosexual. However, here's my problem. Let's take a look at the King James Version (KJV):

Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind...

So, essentially, this is how KJV was translated into the NIV:

• "effeminate" became "male prostitutes"


• "abusers of themselves with mankind" became "homosexual offenders"

How did they come to interpret things this way?? That's what I want to know. Because there are male prostitutes out there who are definitely NOT effeminate (they sell themselves to WOMEN). And "mankind" back in "the day" was synonymous with the human race. I say this because I cannot find a Biblical reference to humankind. So what does it really mean to abuse yourself with humanity? Self-mutilation? Self-degradation?

With that in mind, let's look at another one of my favorite verses...God's greatest commandment (Matthew 22:35-40):

One of them, an expert in the law, tested him [Jesus] with this question: "Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?" Jesus replied: " 'Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.' This is the first and greatest commandment. And the second is like it: 'Love your neighbor [WAIT FOR IT...] as yourself.' All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments."

Now here's how I interpret "abusers of themselves with mankind": This is a person who cannot love him/herself, and therefore cannot love his/her neighbor. And, therefore, in likeness, cannot love God. How can a person who cannot love ever inherit the kingdom of God?

So how did man decide that "abusers of themselves" became "homosexual?" It is (I belive) because Christianity is founded on Judaism. Remember that Paul (once Saul) was a Jew and strongly believed in Jewish law. And, most of the Christian Bible is the Old Testament.

I tried finding the relevant passages in the Old Testament (I know it's in Deuteronomy somewhere) on this site (the one I've been using all along), and all I could find, in the King James version, relating to homosexuals was the term "sodomite".

What happened in Sodom? Well, long story short, angels of God came to visit the last righteous family in Sodom; and when the other Sodomites found out who was there, they wanted to FORCEFULLY have sex with them (males). Sodomy, therefore, isn't just necessarily anal sex, but anal rape. Here is the passage. Note that the Sodomite males were going to BREAK DOWN THE DOOR to get to the angels.

This, of course, was the straw that broke the camel's back; and God destroyed Sodom.

Now, then; back to homosexuals in Deuteronomy and how "abusers of themselves" became "homosexuals". I was wrong: the applicable passage is Leviticus 18:22 (don't sleep with men like with women, paraphrased). The penalty is in 18:29 ... being cast out. Now, here in Leviticus 18:22, "mankind" is meant to be "men" (since "womankind" is used). So perhaps this is where the interpreters meant that "abusers of themselves with mankind" meant homosexual offenders. Either way, you can see that homosexuality was considered sinful in modern Christian times (based off of the NIV) because it was deemed wrong in Hebrew law (Leviticus).

So is being a homosexual sinful?

Under orthodox Judaism, apparently so; but only inasmuch as you were like the people the Hebrew were conquering at the time (God wanted His people to be 'better' than that...after all, look what the men of Sodom were willing to do...of course God didn't want His people to be like that). But depending on how we translated from KJV to NIV (and whatever text came before KJV), we cannot be totally sure. I have shown how I can interpret "abusers of themselves" differently, using different context (the Gospels, instead of ancient Jewish law).

So, after all this rambling, what's the answer? The answer is in the heart, where God speaks to us. We often turn to man, and the writings of man oftentimes inspired by God; and it is never totally accurate. Wanton homosexuality, in my opinion, is wrong; as is wanton heterosexuality. What do I mean? Rampant fornication. It's dangerous! How else do STDs get transferred? And, if you're spending all your time looking for sex, how can you spend time looking for God?

Common sense, people!

I'm sure this is why one of the common tenets in Eastern philosophy is moderation.

Well, my rant is done. I know people may or may not agree with my point of view. But everyone must realize that whether you're straight, gay, or whatever; God still loves us all. Otherwise, we would never have had Jesus. Or Buddha. Or any of the other bright souls that have come to Earth to teach us how to properly treat one another. So go be good to one another, and refrain from true sin: actions bred from hate and contempt.